A 23-year-old woman is contacted by her physician regarding laboratory results. She was evaluated at the student health center two days ago for a one-week history of increased, yellow-tinged vaginal discharge and spotting after intercourse. At that visit, a pelvic examination revealed a friable cervix with mucopurulent exudate, but no cervical motion, uterine, or adnexal tenderness. A vaginal wet mount showed numerous leukocytes but no clue cells, motile trichomonads, or yeast. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) of an endocervical swab was sent. The results are now available and are positive for *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and negative for *Chlamydia trachomatis*. The patient has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic intervention for this patient?
- ASingle-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone and a 7-day course of oral doxycycline
- BSingle-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone and single-dose oral azithromycin
- Single-dose intramuscular ceftriaxoneAnswer
- DA 7-day course of oral doxycycline
- ESingle-dose oral azithromycin