A -year-old woman is evaluated in the intensive care unit due to high-pressure ventilator alarms. She is on postoperative day following an exploratory laparotomy for a perforated diverticulum. Her past medical history includes severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, heart failure with preserved ejection fraction, and chronic kidney disease. She has been heavily sedated and on volume assist-control mechanical ventilation since surgery.
She is currently receiving targeted intravenous ceftriaxone, as peritoneal fluid cultures from the surgery are growing pan-sensitive *Escherichia coli*.
Current vital signs:
Temperature: ()
Blood pressure:
Heart rate:
Oxygen saturation: on an of
Current ventilator settings:
Tidal volume: ( predicted body weight)
Respiratory rate:
PEEP:
The peak inspiratory pressure has abruptly increased to (was four hours ago).
The physician performs an end-inspiratory hold maneuver, which reveals a plateau pressure of (unchanged from four hours ago).
Arterial blood gas analysis reveals:
pH:
:
:
:
Physical examination reveals scattered wheezes bilaterally and a prolonged expiratory phase. Cardiac examination shows tachycardia with a regular rhythm. The abdomen is tender but without surgical site erythema.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AIncrease the set respiratory rate to
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide
- Administer an in-line inhaled bronchodilator and suction the endotracheal tubeAnswer
- DBroaden the current antibiotic regimen to include vancomycin and cefepime
- EObtain venous duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities