A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting three days of intense vaginal itching and a thick, white vaginal discharge. She denies abdominal pain, fever, or dysuria. Two weeks ago, she completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin-clavulanate for acute bacterial sinusitis. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses oral contraceptives. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals significant vulvar erythema and edema, along with thick, cottage cheese-like adherent vaginal discharge. The cervix appears normal with no motion tenderness. Vaginal pH is 4.0. Microscopic evaluation of the vaginal fluid with 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation reveals budding yeast and pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Single-dose oral fluconazoleAnswer
- BMulti-day course of oral metronidazole
- CIntramuscular ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
- DTopical clobetasol propionate
- ESingle-dose oral azithromycin