A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and severe right flank pain. He has a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia and recurrent urinary tract infections. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , heart rate is , and respiratory rate is . Physical examination reveals marked right costovertebral angle tenderness.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . Intravenous fluids are administered, and he is started empirically on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam.
On hospital day 3, the patient's clinical status has significantly improved. He is afebrile with a blood pressure of . Blood and urine cultures obtained on admission both grow *Enterobacter cloacae*.
The antimicrobial susceptibility report for the *Enterobacter cloacae* isolate is as follows:
| Antimicrobial | Result |
|---|---|
| Ampicillin | Resistant |
| Ceftriaxone | Susceptible |
| Cefepime | Susceptible |
| Piperacillin-tazobactam | Susceptible |
| Meropenem | Susceptible |
| Ciprofloxacin | Resistant |
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's pharmacologic management?
- ATransition to intravenous ceftriaxone
- Transition to intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- CTransition to intravenous meropenem
- DContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- ETransition to oral nitrofurantoin