A 68-year-old man with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the hospital with fever, severe left flank pain, and dysuria. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . He is empirically started on intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam and intravenous fluids.
On hospital day 3, the patient is clinically improved and afebrile. Blood and urine cultures drawn at admission both grow *Enterobacter cloacae*.
Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of the isolate reveals the following:
- Ampicillin: Resistant
- Cefazolin: Resistant
- Ceftriaxone: Sensitive (MIC )
- Cefepime: Sensitive (MIC )
- Piperacillin-tazobactam: Sensitive (MIC )
- Meropenem: Sensitive (MIC )
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the antimicrobial management of this patient?
- Switch to intravenous cefepimeAnswer
- BSwitch to intravenous ceftriaxone
- CContinue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DSwitch to intravenous meropenem
- EAdd intravenous gentamicin to the current regimen