A -year-old man is hospitalized due to a -week history of low-grade fever, progressive fatigue, and generalized myalgias. He has a history of osteoarthritis and underwent a colonoscopy months ago for routine screening. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination reveals a grade holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex that radiates to the axilla. Splinter hemorrhages are noted on the fingernails of both hands. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of . A transesophageal echocardiogram demonstrates a mobile vegetation on the mitral valve.
Three sets of blood cultures are drawn, and the patient is empirically started on intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone. Forty-eight hours later, all three blood culture sets grow *Enterococcus faecalis*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is reported as follows:
| Antimicrobial | Susceptibility |
|---|---|
| Ampicillin | Susceptible |
| Penicillin | Susceptible |
| Vancomycin | Susceptible |
| Linezolid | Susceptible |
| Gentamicin | High-level resistance |
| Streptomycin | High-level resistance |
The patient's serum creatinine is . He has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in antimicrobial therapy?
- Intravenous ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BIntravenous ampicillin and gentamicin
- CIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- DIntravenous ampicillin monotherapy
- EIntravenous daptomycin and linezolid