A 5-year-old girl is admitted to the pediatric ward with severe right thigh pain, fever, and an inability to bear weight. Magnetic resonance imaging confirms acute hematogenous osteomyelitis of the right femur. She is empirically started on a regimen of intravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone. On hospital day 3, her clinical condition has significantly improved, and she has been afebrile for 24 hours. Blood cultures and a deep tissue aspirate obtained on admission both grow *Staphylococcus aureus*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the isolate is resistant to penicillin, but susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, and clindamycin. The patient has no known drug allergies. Which of the following is the most appropriate antimicrobial regimen for this patient at this time?
- Intravenous cefazolinAnswer
- BIntravenous vancomycin and ceftriaxone
- CIntravenous linezolid
- DIntravenous meropenem
- EIntravenous daptomycin