During an ongoing labor induction for post-term pregnancy, a -year-old nulliparous woman at weeks gestation is evaluated for abnormal fetal monitoring. She is receiving a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion. Her most recent laboratory results demonstrate a hemoglobin concentration of and a normal basic metabolic panel. On continuous electronic fetal monitoring, the baseline heart rate is with moderate variability. The tracing reveals symmetric, gradual decreases in the fetal heart rate that nadir after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the contractions end. Simultaneously, the tocodynamometer records contractions every minutes. In response, the clinical team stops the oxytocin infusion, alters her position to the left lateral decubitus, and provides an intravenous fluid bolus. Reassessment minutes later reveals ongoing uterine activity with contractions per -minute period and persistence of the fetal heart rate decelerations. Her cervix is dilated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Subcutaneous injection of terbutalineAnswer
- BPreparation for emergency cesarean delivery
- CInitiation of prophylactic amnioinfusion
- DTransfusion of packed red blood cells
- EContinued observation with continuous fetal monitoring