An inpatient consultation is requested for a 73-year-old male on the orthopedic surgery ward who developed acute-onset respiratory distress. The patient was admitted 3 days ago for management of right lower extremity cellulitis and has been receiving intravenous cefazolin and continuous normal saline at 125 mL/hr. Medical history is significant for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 165/95 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 28/min. Pulse oximetry shows 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a patient in moderate respiratory distress using accessory muscles. Jugular venous pulsation is visible 11 cm above the sternal angle. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse, bilateral end-expiratory wheezes with scattered bibasilar crackles. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia with a prominent early diastolic extra heart sound. Lower extremities show 2+ pitting edema bilaterally extending to the knees. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- BAdminister nebulized albuterol and ipratropium
- CAdminister intravenous methylprednisolone
- DBroaden antimicrobial coverage to piperacillin-tazobactam
- EAdminister intravenous metoprolol