A -year-old man is admitted to the intensive care unit with severe acute pancreatitis. On his third day of hospitalization, he develops rapidly progressive dyspnea and hypoxemia. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of despite receiving oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. Physical examination reveals diffuse bilateral crackles without wheezing, jugular venous distention, or lower extremity edema. A portable chest radiograph displays bilateral alveolar opacities. An echocardiogram shows a normal left ventricular ejection fraction and no valvular abnormalities. The patient is subsequently endotracheally intubated for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's respiratory failure?
- AContinuous intravenous furosemide infusion
- BIntravenous piperacillin and tazobactam
- Low tidal volume mechanical ventilationAnswer
- DNebulized albuterol and ipratropium
- EIntravenous sodium bicarbonate