During a routine follow-up appointment, a 68-year-old female reports a recent onset of bothersome urinary leakage. Over the past month, she has experienced frequent episodes where a sudden, intense desire to pass urine is immediately followed by incontinence. Additionally, she reports an increase in nighttime awakenings to void. Her past medical history includes poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, essential hypertension, and painful peripheral neuropathy. Medication adjustments one month ago included the addition of amitriptyline. Current vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is mild suprapubic fullness but no identifiable anterior or posterior vaginal wall defects. The Q-tip test demonstrates a maximum straining angle of from the horizontal. Bedside bladder ultrasonography demonstrates a residual volume of 410 mL immediately after the patient voluntarily voids. Dipstick urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the care of this patient?
- Discontinuation of the tricyclic antidepressantAnswer
- BPrescription of a daily antimuscarinic medication
- CAdministration of empiric oral fluoroquinolone therapy
- DSurgical placement of a tension-free vaginal tape
- EPerformance of an outpatient endometrial biopsy