During a routine home-visit evaluation, a geriatric psychiatrist examines a 73-year-old man whose daughter reports a 9-month history of progressive cognitive decline and unusual behaviors. The daughter emphasizes that his mental clarity fluctuates dramatically; he can be highly alert in the morning but profoundly lethargic and disorganized by the afternoon. Over the past 3 months, he has started seeing "strangers sitting on the living room couch," which causes him significant distress and agitation. For the past 4 years, he has exhibited violent thrashing and shouting movements during sleep. His medical history is significant for major depressive disorder, for which he has taken fluoxetine continuously for the last 5 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Neurologic examination demonstrates bilateral cogwheel rigidity and a mild resting tremor in the left upper extremity. His Montreal Cognitive Assessment score is 20/30, featuring prominent deficits in visuospatial construction. The physician discusses management options with the daughter to address the patient's distressing visual hallucinations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient's condition?
- Initiate a central acetylcholinesterase inhibitorAnswer
- BInitiate haloperidol for acute agitation management
- CInitiate selegiline to target the patient's motor symptoms
- DDiagnose schizophreniform disorder and initiate risperidone
- EIncrease the fluoxetine dosage to treat psychotic features of bipolar depression