A 32-year-old man with a 10-year history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia is evaluated on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Over the past several years, he has continued to experience severe, commanding auditory hallucinations despite adequate therapeutic trials of risperidone, olanzapine, and haloperidol. Four weeks ago, he was transitioned to clozapine, which was gradually titrated to 600 mg daily. The nursing staff notes that his psychotic symptoms have dramatically improved, and he is interacting appropriately with peers for the first time in years. However, earlier today, the patient experienced a new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizure that lasted 90 seconds and spontaneously resolved. He has no prior history of seizures, and a non-contrast head CT is unremarkable. His current absolute neutrophil count is 4,500/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- AAdd carbamazepine and maintain the clozapine dose
- Add valproic acid and reduce the clozapine doseAnswer
- CDiscontinue clozapine and begin chlorpromazine
- DDiscontinue clozapine and begin ziprasidone
- EAdd phenytoin and maintain the clozapine dose