During morning rounds, the surgical team examines a 41-year-old male patient who underwent an emergency appendectomy for a perforated appendix six days ago. Over the last 24 hours, he has developed lower abdominal discomfort, tenesmus, and the passage of several small-volume, loose stools. His temperature is (), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 18/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The midline abdominal incision is clean, dry, and intact with no surrounding erythema, fluctuance, or induration. Deep palpation of the lower abdomen elicits moderate tenderness, but no rebound or guarding is appreciated. Digital rectal examination reveals a markedly tender, boggy mass positioned anteriorly. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvisAnswer
- BStool assay for Clostridioides difficile toxins
- COpening of the abdominal incision at the bedside
- DImmediate empiric administration of intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- EImmediate return to the operating room for exploratory laparotomy