A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the hematology-oncology unit for persistent daily fevers. He was admitted 14 days ago to undergo induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia. Four days ago, he developed a fever of 38.9°C (102.0°F) when his absolute neutrophil count (ANC) was 200/mm³. After blood cultures were obtained, empiric intravenous cefepime was initiated. Today, his temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), blood pressure is 118/76 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. His current ANC is 100/mm³. The initial blood cultures have shown no growth after 96 hours. The patient now reports the onset of mild, right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Physical examination reveals normal heart sounds and clear lung fields bilaterally. His tunneled central venous catheter site appears clean with no surrounding erythema or induration. A non-contrast chest CT demonstrates a 2.5-cm dense nodule in the right upper lobe surrounded by a distinct rim of ground-glass opacity. Serum galactomannan and beta-D-glucan assays are drawn and pending. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate intravenous voriconazoleAnswer
- BInitiate intravenous caspofungin
- CReplace cefepime with intravenous meropenem
- DAdd intravenous vancomycin
- EWithhold further pharmacotherapy until fungal biomarkers return