A 71-year-old male is currently on the medical ward receiving treatment for a severe skin and soft tissue infection complicated by bloodstream invasion. He was admitted 72 hours ago with marked swelling, warmth, and purulence of his left forearm following a minor abrasion. At the time of admission, he was febrile and hypotensive, prompting the initiation of broad-spectrum coverage with intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. He has since hemodynamically stabilized and is now afebrile. The microbiology laboratory reports that both sets of blood cultures obtained at admission are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Susceptibility testing reveals the organism is susceptible to oxacillin, cefazolin, clindamycin, and vancomycin, but resistant to penicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification to his antimicrobial regimen?
- Change the regimen to intravenous cefazolin.Answer
- BMaintain the current regimen of vancomycin and cefepime.
- CStop cefepime and continue vancomycin monotherapy.
- DStop vancomycin and continue cefepime monotherapy.
- EChange the regimen to oral clindamycin.