A nulliparous woman presents to the labor ward at 40 weeks of gestation complaining of regular, painful contractions. Upon admission, her vital signs are within normal limits. Her cervix is dilated to 5 cm and is 90% effaced. Artificial rupture of membranes is performed, yielding a moderate amount of clear amniotic fluid. Two hours later, her cervix is 7 cm dilated. The continuous fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 140/min and moderate variability. However, the tracing also reveals recurrent, abrupt drops in the heart rate to 90/min that last for 40 seconds before rapidly returning to the baseline. These drops are not consistently related to the peak of the uterine contractions, which are occurring every 3 minutes. The patient is immediately placed in the left lateral decubitus position and given an intravenous fluid bolus, but the fetal heart rate pattern remains unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate an amnioinfusionAnswer
- BProceed to cesarean delivery
- CAdminister terbutaline
- DContinue expectant management
- EApply a fetal scalp electrode