A -year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor due to preeclampsia with severe features. She is receiving continuous intravenous infusions of oxytocin and magnesium sulfate. Maintenance intravenous fluids are running concurrently at . Approximately hours into her induction, she reports the sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, anxiety, and a cough productive of pink, frothy sputum.
Vital signs are:
- Temperature: ()
- Blood pressure:
- Heart rate:
- Respiratory rate:
- Oxygen saturation: on room air
Physical examination reveals prominent jugular venous distension and diffuse, bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. Deep tendon reflexes are and symmetric bilaterally. Urine output has been over the last hours. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of with moderate variability and no decelerations. Supplemental oxygen is administered via a non-rebreather mask.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous furosemideAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous calcium gluconate
- CPerform an emergent cesarean delivery
- DAdminister intravenous labetalol
- EAdminister a rapid intravenous fluid bolus