A 29-year-old woman, G1P0 at weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with progressively worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea, and intermittent blood-tinged sputum over the past two weeks. She recently emigrated from Southeast Asia and has had limited prenatal care. She is highly anxious but clearly states, "I want to do everything possible to keep my baby, no matter what happens to me. I refuse any procedure that will deliver my baby early." Vital signs show a temperature of (), blood pressure of mmHg, heart rate of /min, respiratory rate of /min, and oxygen saturation of on room air. Physical examination reveals an elevated jugular venous pressure. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse bilateral expiratory wheezes and bibasilar crackles. Cardiac auscultation at the left lateral decubitus position reveals a loud S1, an early diastolic extra sound, and a low-pitched mid-diastolic rumble. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
- Perform echocardiography and carefully initiate a cardioselective beta-antagonistAnswer
- BProvide reassurance as her symptoms represent normal maternal circulatory adaptations
- CAdminister nebulized short-acting beta-agonists and systemic corticosteroids
- DObtain sputum cultures and initiate empiric broad-spectrum antimicrobial therapy
- EProceed with an emergent cesarean delivery to reduce maternal volume load despite her refusal