A 74-year-old man is evaluated in the outpatient clinic due to a two-month history of progressively worsening exertional dyspnea and a persistent, dry cough. He has a known history of ischemic cardiomyopathy with a left ventricular ejection fraction of , moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and recurrent symptomatic ventricular tachycardia. His current daily medications include aspirin, metoprolol succinate, lisinopril, empagliflozin, inhaled tiotropium, and amiodarone, which was initiated eight months ago for arrhythmia control. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respiratory rate is . Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of on room air. Jugular venous pressure is measured at . Cardiopulmonary examination reveals regular heart sounds with no murmurs, gallops, or rubs. Auscultation of the lungs reveals fine, bilateral inspiratory crackles most prominent at the bases, without any wheezing. There is no lower extremity edema. Laboratory studies show a white blood cell count of and a B-type natriuretic peptide level of . A high-resolution computed tomography scan of the chest demonstrates diffuse, bilateral ground-glass opacities and thickened interlobular septa. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Discontinue amiodarone and initiate oral prednisoneAnswer
- BAdminister intravenous furosemide and obtain an echocardiogram
- CPrescribe oral azithromycin and increase the frequency of inhaled tiotropium
- DDiscontinue lisinopril and observe the patient for symptom improvement
- EPerform urgent diagnostic bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage