A -hour-old male neonate is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit for respiratory distress. He was delivered at weeks gestation via an elective, scheduled cesarean delivery to a -year-old gravida 2, para 2 mother. The mother's pregnancy was uncomplicated, and there is no history of prolonged rupture of membranes, maternal fever, or meconium-stained amniotic fluid. Birth weight is . Apgar scores were and at and minutes, respectively. Vital signs are temperature (), heart rate , and respiratory rate . Physical examination reveals an infant with mild intercostal retractions, nasal flaring, and grunting. Breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally with no murmurs.
An arterial blood gas on room air reveals the following:
| Measurement | Value | Reference Range |
|---|---|---|
A chest radiograph demonstrates lung hyperinflation, prominent perihilar vascular markings, and fluid within the interlobar fissures. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Provide supportive care with oxygen supplementation or continuous positive airway pressureAnswer
- BAdminister nebulized albuterol and oral dexamethasone
- CObtain blood cultures and initiate intravenous vancomycin and cefepime therapy
- DInsert an orogastric tube and prepare for an emergent exploratory laparotomy
- EAdminister the live-attenuated intranasal influenza vaccine