A 28-year-old female presents for a well-woman visit to discuss family planning. She was diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) three years ago, characterized by oligomenorrhea—with menses occurring every 3 to 5 months—and hirsutism. Her medical history is also significant for frequent headaches, which she describes as severe, throbbing pain preceded by scintillating scotomas. These headaches occur roughly once every two months, and she takes sumatriptan for abortive relief. Her body mass index is 34 kg/m². Vital signs show a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg and a heart rate of 76/min. Physical examination demonstrates thick, dark hair growth on her chin and upper lip. A urine pregnancy test is negative. She is in a long-term monogamous relationship, does not wish to conceive, and requests a reliable contraceptive that will simultaneously reduce her risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- Insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine deviceAnswer
- BInitiation of a combined oral contraceptive pill
- CInsertion of a copper intrauterine device
- DMeasurement of serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone
- EInitiation of clomiphene citrate therapy