A 29-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic to discuss contraception and to be evaluated for absent menstrual periods. Her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. Previously, her cycles were regular, occurring every 28 days. She reports feeling excessively tired, frequently cold, and having gained 6 kg (13 lb) over the past year despite active exercise. She also notes occasional clear fluid expression from her breasts.
Her medical history is notable for migraine headaches accompanied by visual scintillating scotomas, for which she takes sumatriptan as needed. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs.
Vital signs are:
Blood pressure: 105/65 mm Hg
Pulse: 56/min
Respirations: 14/min
Temperature: 36.1 °C (97.0 °F)
BMI: 27 kg/m2
Physical examination reveals a delayed relaxation phase of the deep tendon reflexes. Breast examination confirms bilateral non-bloody galactorrhea. The pelvic examination is normal.
Urine beta-hCG test is negative.
Serum laboratory studies show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 1.2 mIU/L (Normal: 0.5–5.0 mIU/L)
Free thyroxine (T4): 0.5 ng/dL (Normal: 0.9–1.7 ng/dL)
Prolactin: 65 ng/mL (Normal: < 20 ng/mL)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): 3.2 mIU/mL (Normal follicular: 3–10 mIU/mL)
The patient requests a prescription for combined oral contraceptive pills to regulate her cycle and prevent pregnancy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Magnetic resonance imaging of the brainAnswer
- BPrescription of combined oral contraceptive pills
- CMeasurement of serum anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies
- DInitiation of levothyroxine therapy
- EPelvic ultrasonography