A 4-year-old boy is brought to the clinic for a routine health maintenance evaluation. He was born at 39 weeks gestation via uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery. Four weeks ago, he was diagnosed with minimal change disease and was started on oral prednisone at 2 mg/kg/day. He has been taking the medication continuously since then with significant improvement in his edema. His mother brings up a concern regarding his development; she notes that he can hop on one foot, copy a cross, and play cooperatively with other children, but he is unable to skip on one foot or tie his shoelaces. Vital signs today are within normal limits for his age. Physical examination reveals mild cushingoid features but is otherwise unremarkable. A review of his immunization record shows he received all recommended vaccines up to age 2 years. He is currently scheduled to receive his standard kindergarten booster vaccines. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient today?
- Provide diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) and inactivated poliovirus (IPV) vaccines only; provide developmental reassuranceAnswer
- BProvide DTaP, IPV, measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), and varicella vaccines; provide developmental reassurance
- CPostpone all scheduled vaccines until the patient completes his medication course; provide developmental reassurance
- DProvide DTaP and IPV vaccines only; recommend an early intervention developmental assessment
- EProvide DTaP, IPV, MMR, and varicella vaccines; recommend an early intervention developmental assessment