A 74-year-old man residing in a skilled nursing facility is evaluated on hospital day for a complicated urinary tract infection. He was initially brought to the emergency department for altered mental status and a new fever. On admission, his temperature was (), and his long-term indwelling urinary catheter was found to be obstructed with purulent sediment. The catheter was promptly removed, and he was started empirically on intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam. Today, the patient is afebrile, his mental status has returned to baseline, and he is tolerating an oral diet. Blood cultures obtained on admission show no growth. A urine culture obtained via straight catheterization prior to antibiotic initiation grows of Escherichia coli. Susceptibility testing reveals the organism is susceptible to ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, but resistant to ampicillin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- ADiscontinue vancomycin and continue intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam.
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, and begin oral nitrofurantoin.
- Discontinue vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam, and begin oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.Answer
- DContinue both intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam to complete a 7-day course.
- EDiscontinue all antimicrobial therapy as the patient is now asymptomatic following catheter removal.