A -year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is undergoing induction of labor for a post-term pregnancy. She is currently cm dilated, effaced, and the fetal presenting part is at station. Artificial rupture of membranes was performed one hour ago, releasing a small amount of clear fluid. Uterine contractions are occurring every minutes. The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of /min with moderate variability. However, with nearly every contraction, there is an abrupt decrease in the fetal heart rate to to /min that lasts for to seconds before rapidly returning to the baseline. The patient's vital signs include a blood pressure of mmHg, a heart rate of /min, and a respiratory rate of /min. She reports intense pain during contractions. The nursing staff has already changed the patient's position and administered an intravenous fluid bolus, but the abnormal fetal heart rate pattern persists. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiation of an amnioinfusionAnswer
- BTransfer to the operating room for a cesarean delivery
- CAdministration of an intravenous oxytocin bolus
- DExpectant management with continued fetal heart rate monitoring
- EEvaluation of maternal arterial blood gases