A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 32 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit for severe headaches, visual changes, and a blood pressure of 170/110 mm Hg. She is diagnosed with severe preeclampsia. Continuous fetal monitoring indicates repetitive late decelerations, strongly suggesting fetal distress. The obstetrician recommends an urgent cesarean delivery to prevent maternal complications and fetal demise. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented. She accurately restates the severity of her condition, including the high likelihood of fetal death and maternal seizures if surgery is not performed. However, she states, "I have always wanted a natural birth, and I absolutely refuse to have surgery under any circumstances." Her husband is at the bedside and demands that the physician perform the surgery immediately to save the baby. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Document the patient's refusal and continue with nonoperative maternal and fetal monitoring.Answer
- BPerform the cesarean delivery immediately to protect the life of the fetus.
- CObtain informed consent from the patient's husband to proceed with the emergency surgery.
- DSeek an emergency court order to mandate the surgical intervention for fetal benefit.
- EInitiate broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics while convening the hospital ethics committee.