Match each patient's clinical presentation with the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention.
- A 45-year-old man with a 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk of 22% and an LDL cholesterol of 145 mg/dLInitiate a high-intensity HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
- A 50-year-old woman with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus, a hemoglobin A1c of 7.8%, and normal renal functionInitiate a biguanide
- A 60-year-old man with newly diagnosed primary hypertension and osteoporosis, with no history of diabetes or heart failureInitiate a thiazide diuretic
- A 55-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease, severe albuminuria, and newly diagnosed primary hypertensionInitiate an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
Answer
The correct matches pair each specific clinical presentation with its guideline-directed first-line pharmacological therapy.
Each correct pairing reflects the standard of care for initial pharmacological management in primary care: statins for high ASCVD risk, biguanides for uncomplicated type 2 diabetes, thiazides for hypertension with osteoporosis, and ACE inhibitors for hypertension with proteinuric CKD.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
First-line pharmacological management of common outpatient chronic diseases