An oncologist requests an internal medicine consultation for a 62-year-old male patient who is experiencing sudden-onset lethargy, anorexia, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is currently receiving immune checkpoint inhibitor therapy (ipilimumab and nivolumab) for advanced melanoma. Vital signs include a blood pressure of 96/60 mm Hg and a heart rate of 54/min. He appears mildly lethargic but is oriented to person, place, and time. There is no hyperpigmentation of the palmar creases or oral mucosa.
Recent biochemical testing shows the following results:
Serum sodium: 132 mEq/L
Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L
TSH: 0.1 µU/mL (Normal: 0.4–4.2 µU/mL)
Free thyroxine (T4): 0.4 ng/dL (Normal: 0.9–1.7 ng/dL)
Serum cortisol (8:00 AM): 2.8 µg/dL (Normal: 5–25 µg/dL)
Which of the following is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism explaining this patient's clinical and laboratory presentation?
- Lymphocytic infiltration of the adenohypophysisAnswer
- BCell-mediated damage to thyroid follicular cells
- CPrimary autoimmune failure of the adrenal cortex
- DReduced tissue activity of deiodinase enzymes
- EFactitious consumption of exogenous levothyroxine