A -year-old G2P2 woman presents to the clinic reporting vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, and two episodes of light vaginal spotting over the last month. She attained menopause at age . Medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination reveals thin, pale, and friable vaginal mucosa with diminished rugae. No cervical or vulvar lesions are visualized. Bimanual examination reveals a small, mobile uterus and no adnexal masses. A transvaginal ultrasound performed in the office shows a homogeneous endometrial stripe with a thickness of and normal bilateral ovaries. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Endometrial biopsyAnswer
- BInitiation of topical vaginal estrogen
- CPapanicolaou test with HPV co-testing
- DTotal extrafascial hysterectomy
- EReassurance and repeat transvaginal ultrasound in 6 months
Answer
Endometrial biopsy
The correct answer is endometrial biopsy. Postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) is a cardinal symptom of endometrial cancer, and its presence warrants prompt evaluation. While atrophic vaginitis is the most common cause of PMB overall, malignancy must be definitively excluded. The initial evaluation for PMB can be either a transvaginal ultrasound or an endometrial biopsy. If a transvaginal ultrasound is performed and shows an endometrial stripe measuring greater than , the risk of endometrial cancer is significantly elevated, and a tissue diagnosis via endometrial biopsy is mandatory. Proceeding to a biopsy is the only safe and appropriate next step for this patient.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Evaluation of Postmenopausal Bleeding
Estimated Time:1m 30s