A 62-year-old male with a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents to an urgent care facility due to a two-day history of progressively worsening shortness of breath. The patient reports that his baseline chronic cough has increased in frequency, but he explicitly states his sputum remains clear and minimal in amount. He denies any fever, chills, orthopnea, or swelling in his legs. His current medications include a daily long-acting muscarinic antagonist and an albuterol inhaler, which he has been using every two hours today with minimal relief. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 142/88 mm Hg, heart rate of 96/min, and respiratory rate of 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 92% on his baseline 2 L/min nasal cannula. Physical examination demonstrates a barrel-shaped chest, distant heart sounds, and a prolonged expiratory phase with scattered end-expiratory wheezes. Jugular venous pressure is normal, and there is no peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Prescribe oral prednisoneAnswer
- BPrescribe oral levofloxacin
- CAdminister intravenous furosemide
- DObtain an arterial blood gas analysis to calculate metabolic compensation
- EOrder an urgent echocardiogram to assess left ventricular ejection fraction