An expectant 34-year-old mother (G3P2) is admitted to the maternity ward at 39 weeks of gestation. She is attempting a vaginal delivery following a previous lower transverse cesarean section. While her labor is progressing, her vital signs show a pulse of 115/min and a blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg. Suddenly, she cries out, reporting a severe, tearing pain in her lower abdomen. The continuous tocodynamometer, which previously showed regular activity, now indicates a complete cessation of uterine contractions. A rapid bedside pelvic examination reveals that the presenting fetal part, previously palpable at +1 station, has retracted and is no longer easily reached. Simultaneously, the fetal monitor displays a sudden and sustained heart rate deceleration to 80/min. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- AAbruptio placentae
- BVasa previa
- CNormal transition phase of labor
- Uterine ruptureAnswer
- EAmniotic fluid embolism