A 31-year-old G1P0 woman at 34 weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for management of preeclampsia with severe features. Upon admission, her blood pressure is 175/115 mmHg, and laboratory evaluation reveals a platelet count of 90,000/mm , aspartate aminotransferase of 110 U/L, and alanine aminotransferase of 125 U/L. A continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate is initiated for seizure prophylaxis, along with intravenous hydralazine.
Over the subsequent 12 hours, the patient receives 3 liters of intravenous lactated Ringer solution because her urine output has been consistently 15 mL/hour. She now complains of new-onset, severe shortness of breath, a persistent cough, and the inability to lie flat.
Current vital signs are:
Temperature: 37.0°C (98.6°F)
Blood pressure: 160/100 mmHg
Pulse: 115/min
Respiratory rate: 28/min
Oxygen saturation: 86% on room air
Physical examination reveals 3+ pitting edema of the lower extremities extending to the knees and bilateral basilar crackles on lung auscultation. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ and symmetric globally.
Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH: 7.46
PaO : 55 mmHg
PaCO : 28 mmHg
HCO : 19 mEq/L
The fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of 145/min, minimal variability, and recurrent late decelerations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Intravenous administration of furosemideAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous calcium gluconate
- CProceed directly to emergent cesarean delivery
- DIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
- EIntravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate