Following a transurethral resection of the prostate four weeks ago, a 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department reporting two weeks of worsening fatigue, night sweats, and shortness of breath with mild exertion. He has no other significant past medical history and takes no daily medications. Vital signs show a temperature of 38.4°C (101.1°F), heart rate of 98/min, and blood pressure of 118/72 mm Hg. Cardiac auscultation reveals a new grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the left axilla. Dermatologic examination shows dark red, linear lesions in the nail beds of both hands. Laboratory evaluation reveals a leukocyte count of 14,500/mm³. A transesophageal echocardiogram demonstrates a 1.4-cm mobile vegetation on the mitral valve with moderate regurgitation. Gram stain of blood cultures drawn at admission shows gram-positive cocci in pairs and short chains. Subsequent speciation confirms *Enterococcus faecalis*. The susceptibility report indicates the organism is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, and daptomycin, but testing demonstrates high-level resistance to gentamicin. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive intravenous pharmacotherapy for this patient?
- Ampicillin and ceftriaxoneAnswer
- BAmpicillin and gentamicin
- CVancomycin and gentamicin
- DDaptomycin monotherapy
- ELinezolid monotherapy