An otherwise healthy -year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a -day history of worsening dull, bilateral lower abdominal pain and a new onset of malodorous, yellowish vaginal discharge. She reports no fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Her medical history is unremarkable. She has a copper intrauterine device (IUD) that was inserted years ago for contraception. She recently became sexually active with a new male partner. Vital signs include a temperature of (), blood pressure of , and pulse of . Pelvic examination reveals a visually normal cervix with visible IUD strings and moderate purulent discharge at the cervical os. Bimanual examination elicits pronounced cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tenderness without palpable masses or fullness. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administer intramuscular ceftriaxone, prescribe oral doxycycline and metronidazole, and retain the intrauterine deviceAnswer
- BAdminister intramuscular ceftriaxone, prescribe oral doxycycline and metronidazole, and remove the intrauterine device
- CAdmit the patient for intravenous cefotetan and oral doxycycline, and retain the intrauterine device
- DPrescribe oral levofloxacin and metronidazole, and retain the intrauterine device
- ERemove the intrauterine device and delay antimicrobial therapy pending culture results