A -year-old nulliparous woman comes to the office due to a -month history of amenorrhea and an inability to conceive. She and her partner have been having regular, unprotected intercourse for years. Her previously regular -day menstrual cycles became increasingly irregular two years ago and ceased entirely months ago. The patient reports a recent onset of daily headaches, worsening fatigue, a -kg (-lb) weight gain, and cold intolerance. Over the past few months, she has also noticed a bilateral, non-bloody, milky nipple discharge. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals delayed relaxation of deep tendon reflexes and bilateral bitemporal hemianopsia on visual field testing.
Laboratory results:
Serum -hCG: Negative
Prolactin: ng/mL (Normal: - ng/mL)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): U/mL (Normal: - U/mL)
Free T4: ng/dL (Normal: - ng/dL)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): mIU/mL (Normal: - mIU/mL)
Luteinizing hormone (LH): mIU/mL (Normal: - mIU/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's hyperprolactinemia?
- AHypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone cross-stimulation of lactotrophs
- Disruption of dopaminergic pathways in the infundibular stalkAnswer
- CAutonomous hypersecretion of prolactin by a pituitary macroadenoma
- DAutonomous hypersecretion of prolactin by a pituitary microadenoma
- EDysregulation of gonadotropin secretion secondary to chronic hyperandrogenism