A 23-year-old graduate student is evaluated in the ambulatory care clinic due to bothersome facial hair and infrequent menstrual periods. Her menarche occurred at age 12, and she reports having only three to four menses per year since that time. Over the last 24 months, she has observed increasing coarse, dark hair on her upper lip, chin, and lower abdomen, prompting her to shave frequently. Her past medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. Vital signs show a blood pressure of , a pulse of , and a respiratory rate of . Her body mass index is . Physical examination confirms moderate inflammatory acne over the face and back, as well as terminal hairs in a male-pattern distribution. Pelvic examination is normal, with no evidence of clitoromegaly or palpable adnexal masses. A urine human chorionic gonadotropin test is negative. Laboratory results show normal serum thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- APrescription of combined oral contraceptives
- BEndometrial biopsy
- Measurement of serum 17-hydroxyprogesteroneAnswer
- DMeasurement of serum luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone
- EOral glucose tolerance test