A 76-year-old woman, G3P3, comes to the clinic due to a 3-month history of involuntary, continuous leakage of urine. She describes the leakage as a constant "dribbling" and reports a persistent sensation that she cannot completely empty her bladder. The patient voids frequently in small amounts during the day and wakes up 3 to 4 times a night to urinate. Medical history is significant for a 20-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by peripheral neuropathy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals decreased sensation to pinprick in the bilateral feet. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable, smooth, suprapubic mass that is dull to percussion. Pelvic examination shows normal vaginal mucosa with no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Measurement of post-void residual volumeAnswer
- BPrescription of oral oxybutynin
- CPelvic floor muscle exercises
- DPlacement of a midurethral sling
- ETrial of topical vaginal estrogen