Examkin

Question

Difficulty: MediumBipolar and Related Disorders

Accompanied by her roommate, a 22-year-old female university student is evaluated at the student health center for progressive social withdrawal over the past month. The patient reports pervasive sadness, sleeping up to 14 hours daily, and an inability to concentrate on her coursework. The roommate mentions that two years prior, the patient had a distinct two-week period where she painted her entire apartment overnight, slept only 2 hours a night without feeling tired, and exhibited pressured speech, which culminated in an emergency department visit. Currently, the patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Mental status examination reveals a tearful young woman with psychomotor retardation and a restricted affect. She denies active suicidal ideation, homicidal ideation, or psychotic symptoms. She explicitly requests that her parents not be contacted regarding her evaluation. Laboratory results, including a comprehensive metabolic panel and thyroid-stimulating hormone levels, are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

  1. A
    Initiate sertraline
  2. B
    Notify the patient's parents and arrange involuntary admission
  3. Initiate quetiapineAnswer
  4. D
    Initiate fluoxetine and phenelzine
  5. E
    Initiate venlafaxine

Answer

The most appropriate next step in management is to initiate quetiapine.
The patient's current presentation of pervasive sadness, hypersomnia, and psychomotor retardation is consistent with a major depressive episode. However, her history of a distinct two-week period characterized by a decreased need for sleep, increased goal-directed activity, and pressured speech indicates a prior manic episode. Therefore, her correct diagnosis is bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode. The most appropriate next step in management is the initiation of an atypical antipsychotic with proven efficacy for acute bipolar depression. Quetiapine is an FDA-approved, first-line pharmacological treatment for this condition.

Step-by-Step Solution

1
Analyze the patient's current symptoms and past psychiatric history.
The patient is experiencing a major depressive episode but has a clear history of a manic episode (decreased need for sleep, impulsivity, pressured speech).
Accurate identification of both current and past affective episodes is required to differentiate unipolar depression from bipolar disorder.
2
Formulate a diagnosis based on the clinical presentation.
The presence of a manic episode combined with the current depressive symptoms confirms a diagnosis of bipolar I disorder, currently in a depressed episode.
The diagnosis dictates the appropriate pharmacological class and highlights treatments that are contraindicated.
3
Determine the most appropriate pharmacological treatment for the current episode.
First-line treatment for acute bipolar depression includes agents like quetiapine, lurasidone, or lithium.
These medications effectively target depressive symptoms without significantly increasing the risk of a manic switch.
4
Evaluate the ethical constraints regarding the patient's request.
Since the patient is a competent adult without active suicidal or homicidal ideation, her confidentiality must be maintained.
Physicians must respect adult patients' autonomy and confidentiality unless there is an imminent threat of severe harm to the patient or a third party.

Key Concept

Treatment of acute bipolar depression requires mood stabilizers or specific second-generation antipsychotics (e.g., quetiapine, lurasidone); antidepressant monotherapy is contraindicated due to the risk of inducing a manic switch. Additionally, adult patient confidentiality must be maintained in the absence of imminent danger.
Estimated Time:1m 30s
Rate this question

Topics

Bipolar and Related Disorders

More questions from this topic