A 79-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department from a memory care facility due to a 3-day history of extreme agitation and visual hallucinations. Staff report she has been picking at the air and describing "spiders on the ceiling." The patient has a 4-year history of Major Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer disease, with a baseline Mini-Mental State Examination score of . Five days ago, she was evaluated for new-onset urinary incontinence, and a new medication was prescribed.
Her current daily medications include donepezil and sertraline. Her son, who is visiting from out of state and is not her legally appointed healthcare proxy (her daughter holds this role), is highly distressed and demands the physician immediately administer heavy sedatives to "calm her down."
On examination, the patient's temperature is (), pulse is , and blood pressure is . She is disoriented, continuously muttering, and unable to participate in cognitive testing. Pupils are bilaterally and minimally reactive to light. Mucous membranes are extremely dry. Abdominal examination reveals absent bowel sounds and a palpable, dull suprapubic mass.
Laboratory results show:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): (Normal: )
Free T4: (Normal: )
Urinalysis: Negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the recently added incontinence medication and perform bladder catheterizationAnswer
- BInitiate levothyroxine supplementation to address the underlying endocrine abnormality
- CDiagnose a primary psychotic disorder and initiate a long-term typical antipsychotic
- DAdd a monoamine oxidase inhibitor to her regimen to target treatment-resistant behavioral symptoms
- EObtain consent from the son to administer intravenous lorazepam for rapid behavioral control