An 82-year-old man residing in a long-term care facility is evaluated during a routine monthly visit. The facility staff report that over the past two days, his urine collection bag has contained visibly cloudy and notably malodorous urine. He has a chronic indwelling urethral catheter that was placed six months ago for severe urinary retention secondary to advanced benign prostatic hyperplasia. The patient currently has no complaints. He denies chills, abdominal discomfort, or flank pain. His appetite is normal, and he has been actively participating in his usual group activities. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 76/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen with no costovertebral angle tenderness. The urethral meatus shows no erythema or purulent discharge. A urinalysis obtained by the staff earlier today demonstrates positive leukocyte esterase, positive nitrites, and 45 leukocytes/hpf. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Observation without antimicrobial therapyAnswer
- BEmpiric oral ciprofloxacin
- CCatheter exchange and empiric oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
- DContinuous bladder irrigation with an antimicrobial solution
- EEmpiric intravenous ceftriaxone