During a routine well-child visit, the mother of a -year-old girl expresses concern about multiple new bruises on her daughter's legs over the past few days. The mother notes the child had a self-resolving upper respiratory tract infection approximately three weeks prior. The patient is otherwise active and has no history of excessive bleeding, epistaxis, or melena. Physical examination reveals a well-appearing, playful child. Vital signs are within normal limits for age. Skin examination shows scattered petechiae and small ecchymoses confined to the bilateral lower extremities. There is no jaundice, lymphadenopathy, or hepatosplenomegaly.
Laboratory evaluation demonstrates:
Hemoglobin:
Leukocyte count: (normal differential)
Platelet count:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
- Observation without pharmacological interventionAnswer
- BAdministration of intravenous immunoglobulin
- CBone marrow aspiration and biopsy
- DTransfusion of matched platelets
- EInitiation of empirical intravenous ceftriaxone