A 72-year-old woman comes to the office due to a 6-month history of increasingly severe, involuntary urinary leakage. She describes the urine as "just dripping out" when she transitions from sitting to standing or when walking around her home. The patient underwent a transobturator tape procedure 12 years ago that initially resolved her symptoms, but the leakage has recurred and is now worse. She reports no dysuria, hematuria, or pelvic pain. Medical history includes hypertension, osteoporosis, and well-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. Body mass index is . Pelvic examination reveals a well-supported vaginal apex with no anterior or posterior vaginal wall prolapse. A cotton swab (Q-tip) test demonstrates a resting angle of and a maximal straining angle of from the horizontal. Urodynamic evaluation shows a Valsalva leak point pressure of and a post-void residual volume of . Detrusor overactivity is absent during cystometry. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AMidurethral sling placement
- Urethral bulking agent injectionAnswer
- COral mirabegron therapy
- DContinence pessary placement
- EIntermittent self-catheterization