A 28-year-old primigravida at weeks gestation is admitted to the labor and delivery unit for induction of labor. Following cervical ripening, a continuous intravenous oxytocin infusion is started. Twelve hours later, the patient reports intense and continuous abdominal pain. Her temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . A sterile vaginal examination reveals the cervix is dilated and effaced, with the fetal vertex at station. The external tocodynamometer records uterine contractions in a -minute period, averaged over the last minutes. The continuous fetal heart rate tracing demonstrates a baseline of , moderate variability, and symmetric decreases in the heart rate that begin after the peak of each contraction and slowly return to baseline after the contraction ends. Repositioning the patient to the left lateral decubitus position and providing a rapid intravenous fluid bolus do not resolve the fetal heart rate findings. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Discontinue the oxytocin infusionAnswer
- BTransfer to the operating room for cesarean delivery
- CInject a dose of subcutaneous terbutaline
- DBegin an intra-amniotic infusion of isotonic saline
- EPerform artificial rupture of the amniotic membranes