A -year-old man comes to the clinic for routine sexually transmitted infection screening. He is currently asymptomatic and has no history of genital ulcers, diffuse rashes, or neurologic symptoms. He reports having unprotected intercourse with a new male sexual partner months ago. He has no known prior history of syphilis or other sexually transmitted infections. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals no oral, genital, or perianal lesions, and no lymphadenopathy is appreciated. The clinic laboratory utilizes the reverse sequence algorithm for syphilis screening. The initial *Treponema pallidum* enzyme immunoassay (EIA) returns reactive. A reflex rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test is nonreactive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Perform a Treponema pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) testAnswer
- BAdminister a single dose of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G
- CAdminister three doses of intramuscular benzathine penicillin G
- DReassure the patient that the enzyme immunoassay result is a false positive
- ERepeat the rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test in 6 months