A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife due to progressively worsening shortness of breath and a persistent, dry cough over the past 48 hours. He states that the breathlessness is most severe when he lies down, forcing him to sleep in a recliner chair. His medical history includes hypertension, osteoarthritis, and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for which he uses a daily tiotropium inhaler. Two weeks ago, he was prescribed daily high-dose naproxen for severe bilateral knee pain. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure is 172/96 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 26/min. Pulse oximetry shows 88% on room air. Physical examination reveals a patient in moderate respiratory distress using accessory muscles of respiration. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse, high-pitched expiratory wheezes and a prolonged expiratory phase. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia without murmurs; no extra heart sounds are audible. Jugular venous pressure is estimated at 12 cm H2O. Chest radiography reveals baseline hyperinflation with new, bilateral, hazy interstitial opacities and thickening of the interlobular septa. Arterial blood gas on room air shows a pH of 7.47, PaCO2 of 32 mmHg, and PaO2 of 56 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Intravenous furosemideAnswer
- BIntravenous methylprednisolone and nebulized albuterol
- CIntravenous piperacillin-tazobactam
- DIntravenous 0.9% sodium chloride
- EInhaled fluticasone and salmeterol