Match each clinical presentation of an opportunistic infection in a patient with advanced HIV to the most appropriate initial targeted pharmacotherapy regimen.
- A 34-year-old man presenting with a 2-week history of worsening headache and photophobia; cerebrospinal fluid analysis demonstrates encapsulated yeast cells.Intravenous liposomal amphotericin B and oral flucytosine
- A 41-year-old woman presenting with progressive visual blurring and floaters; funduscopic examination reveals extensive yellow-white retinal infiltrates with associated perivascular hemorrhage.Oral valganciclovir
- A 28-year-old man presenting with a 3-week history of dry cough and exertional dyspnea; arterial blood gas shows a PaO2 of 62 mm Hg, and chest radiography reveals diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities.Intravenous trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and oral prednisone
- A 39-year-old woman presenting with a new-onset generalized tonic-clonic seizure and right-sided hemiparesis; brain magnetic resonance imaging reveals multiple ring-enhancing lesions predominantly in the basal ganglia.Oral sulfadiazine, oral pyrimethamine, and oral leucovorin
Answer
The presentation of cryptococcal meningitis pairs with amphotericin B and flucytosine. The presentation of CMV retinitis pairs with valganciclovir. The presentation of severe PCP pairs with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and prednisone. The presentation of toxoplasmic encephalitis pairs with sulfadiazine, pyrimethamine, and leucovorin.
Each clinical scenario describes a classic presentation of a specific opportunistic infection in advanced HIV. The correct antimicrobial regimen must be precisely tailored to the identified pathogen (fungal, viral, or protozoal) and the severity of the disease.
Step-by-Step Solution
Key Concept
Pharmacotherapy for opportunistic infections in advanced HIV