A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his partner due to severe, worsening perineal pain and fever for the past . He has a -year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated by peripheral neuropathy and nephropathy. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination demonstrates marked edema, erythema, and induration of the perineum extending to the scrotum. There are several dark, necrotic bullae on the scrotal skin. Palpation of the affected area elicits exquisite pain and a crackling sensation beneath the skin. Laboratory evaluation reveals a leukocyte count of and serum glucose of . Aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics are initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Emergent surgical exploration and extensive tissue debridementAnswer
- BComputed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- CBedside incision and drainage of the scrotal bullae
- DDe-escalation to targeted narrow-spectrum antibiotics based on local antibiogram
- EContinuous intravenous insulin infusion and clinical reassessment in 4 hours