A -year-old man with a history of Crohn disease and multiple prior ileal resections presents to the clinic for follow-up of a recent episode of right-sided flank pain. The pain began two days ago, radiated to his groin, and has since resolved completely after he took ibuprofen. He has chronic, non-bloody diarrhea but currently feels well. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and pulse is . Physical examination demonstrates a soft, non-tender abdomen with mild right costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory testing reveals a serum creatinine of . Urinalysis shows a pH of , , and no leukocyte esterase or nitrites. A kidney, ureter, and bladder (KUB) radiograph demonstrates no radiopaque abnormalities. A subsequent non-contrast CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals a calculus in the right renal pelvis causing mild hydronephrosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's calculus?
- Oral potassium citrateAnswer
- BExtracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy
- CPercutaneous nephrolithotomy
- DUreteroscopic stone extraction
- EOral allopurinol