A -year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family due to severe shortness of breath, generalized weakness, and newly developed confusion over the past hours. He has a history of severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and type 2 diabetes mellitus. For the past three days, he has had a worsening cough productive of thick, yellow sputum and a fever. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . On physical examination, the patient is lethargic and oriented only to person. He is using accessory muscles of respiration. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse rhonchi bilaterally and localized crackles in the right lower lung field. Jugular venous pressure is . Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs or gallops. There is no lower extremity edema. A chest radiograph reveals a right lower lobe consolidation. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH:
:
:
:
Serum lactate is . The patient receives a intravenous fluid bolus, and empiric intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin are initiated. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilationAnswer
- BInitiation of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- CIntravenous administration of sodium bicarbonate
- DIntravenous administration of furosemide
- EEscalation of antibiotics to intravenous vancomycin and cefepime